King James Version
What Does Romans 3:29 Mean?
“Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:”
Context
27
Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
28
Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
29
Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
30
Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
31
Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid : yea, we establish the law.
Commentary
Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers(29) **Is he not also.**—Insert “or.” “Or are we to suppose that God *is the God of* (literally, *belongs to*) the Jews only?”—taking up the point in the last verse, that any man, simply *quâ* man, and without regard to distinction of race, was capable of justification.
Charles John Ellicott (1819–1905). Public Domain.
Historical Context
This verse is found in the book of Romans. Understanding the historical and cultural background helps illuminate its meaning for the original audience and for us today.
Theological Significance
Romans 3:29 contributes to our understanding of God's character and His relationship with humanity. Consider how this verse connects to the broader themes of Scripture.
Cross-References
Verses related to Romans 3:29
Cross-references from Treasury of Scripture Knowledge